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If one person is on the deed and two people signed the note can the person on the deed sell the property without permission satisfy the mortgage and collect the proceeds?
Wiki User
∙ 7y ago
Of course. A person who signs a note and is not on the deed is simply a volunteer. They have volunteered to pay a mortgage on property they don't own if the primary borrower defaults. The owner of the property can sell the property and pay off the mortgage from the proceeds at any time.
Wiki User
∙ 7y ago
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One person is on the deed and two people signed the note . Can the person on the deed sell the property without permission satisfy the mortgage and collect the proceeds?
Yes. A person who does not own the property but signs the note is simply a volunteer. They have volunteered to pay the mortgage if the primary borrower (the owner of the property) defaults. Signing a mortgage for property you don't own is a very bad decision.
If the proceeds from the foreclosure sale are not enough to pay off the mortgage is the mortgage still cancelled as a debt against the borrower?
The difference between what is still owed on the mortgage and what the property was sold for at the foreclosure sale is called a "deficiency". The ability of a lender to collect the amount of the deficiency is governed by state law. You need to check the laws of your state for a definitive answer. See the discussion at the link provided below for more information.
Can a first mortgage foreclose with a second?
Yes. The second is subordinate to the first mortgage and therefore is at greater risk. If equity exists, the 2nd mortgage holder may receive payment for the debt when a senior lender forecloses. If there is not, then their lien on the property is wiped out and they must pursue the borrower in another fashion (such as a lawsuit). If the 2nd mortgage lender does not want the 1st lender to foreclose, they may choose to pay the 1st mortgage current before the foreclosure proceeds and attempt to collect or foreclose themselves.
Does the bank still collect from a deceased co signers estate if the property was sold?
The bank has a lien on a mortgaged property that is not affected by a transfer of the property. The bank will go after the decedent's estate and the cosigner for payment of the mortgage. If the mortgage isn't paid the bank will take possession of the property by a foreclosure.The bank has a lien on a mortgaged property that is not affected by a transfer of the property. The bank will go after the decedent's estate and the cosigner for payment of the mortgage. If the mortgage isn't paid the bank will take possession of the property by a foreclosure.The bank has a lien on a mortgaged property that is not affected by a transfer of the property. The bank will go after the decedent's estate and the cosigner for payment of the mortgage. If the mortgage isn't paid the bank will take possession of the property by a foreclosure.The bank has a lien on a mortgaged property that is not affected by a transfer of the property. The bank will go after the decedent's estate and the cosigner for payment of the mortgage. If the mortgage isn't paid the bank will take possession of the property by a foreclosure.
Can a mortgage company in Oklahoma come after a spouse if not on the loan?
Generally, no. However, it may have the right to take the property covered by the mortgage by foreclosure in the case of a default. If the lender is trying to collect from you and you did not sign the note and mortgage then you should contact an attorney who can review your situation and explain your rights and responsibilities.See related question.Generally, no. However, it may have the right to take the property covered by the mortgage by foreclosure in the case of a default. If the lender is trying to collect from you and you did not sign the note and mortgage then you should contact an attorney who can review your situation and explain your rights and responsibilities.See related question.Generally, no. However, it may have the right to take the property covered by the mortgage by foreclosure in the case of a default. If the lender is trying to collect from you and you did not sign the note and mortgage then you should contact an attorney who can review your situation and explain your rights and responsibilities.See related question.Generally, no. However, it may have the right to take the property covered by the mortgage by foreclosure in the case of a default. If the lender is trying to collect from you and you did not sign the note and mortgage then you should contact an attorney who can review your situation and explain your rights and responsibilities.See related question.
Can you collect rent and not pay mortgage?
No Yes, however you will can be held responsible if you break the terms of the agreement you have with the tenants on the property when. reposesion proceedings startagainst you.
Can the beneficiary collect insurance proceeds if the insured collect illegal rebating from agent?
Though paying rebate to insured by agents is prohibited, that does not hinder in the way of getting insurance proceeds.
How long can you mortgage property in monopoly?
when its your turn you can mortgage a property so long as you own the property and it has no houses or hotels on it. to mortgage it you just flip the card over and take from the bank however much it says the mortgage is worth (this is always half the value of the street). people who land on your street when it is mortgaged do not have to pay the rent. you can unmortgage your street when it is your turn again and if you sell or trade the street to another player when it is mortgaged then that player must adopt the mortgage and pay it themselves.
Why is necessary to obtain permission from the the person called when making collect calls?
why is it necessary to obtain permission from the person called when making collect calls
Is it legal to collect a finders fee from a mortgage broker?
Yes, you can collect a finders fee from a mortgage broker. Gifts and money are exchanged in this situation all the time.
States must have the permission of to collect duties on imports or exports?
States must ask Santa Claus permission to collect duties on imports and exports.
Why is it necessary to obtain permission from the person called when making collect call?
why is it necessary to obtain permission from the person called when making collect calls
