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Opinion: No. The inference is not for inferiority. In practice, however, for example in racially-separate public schools, some schools were treated differently resulting in fewer high quality graduates.

Opinion: Yes, it can when set in motion but is not always the case.

For example, most public places around the US have separate restrooms for the men and women. It isn't to imply women are inferior to men or vice versa, but to protect the privacy of the different but equal genders.

However, when separating people by color, class, or likewise, it can be easier to see implied inferiority because of access to certain necessities the other side usually does not have.

With men and women, normally, both have running water and fully working Plumbing within their restroom, give or take a few places with bad upkeep.

But with race, normally, one side's access to the proper tools and equipment to achieve their potential or get the best out of life is severely slanted or not in place at all.

Many reasons can be stated why such a thing would happen, but one of the most logical is that "their" side is seen as inferior and not worthy enough of what the "other side" has, so it simply is not given.

In that case, inferiority is indeed implied, and that would be especially easy for a person to see if they are on the so seen as "inferior" side.

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Q: In your opinion does 'separate but equal' imply inferiority?
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