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My deeds where lost in a fire by mortgage provider when i received them there is was no information on them as to when the property was built?
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
Deeds do not typically recite that type of information. That takes research on your part. You should check at the assessor's office first to see if they have that information in their records.
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
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If you are a co-owner of real property did not sign the mortgage and it's foreclosed can you be held responsible for a deficiency judgment?
If you did not sign the mortgage then you have no obligations relating to it. You are not responsible for any deficiency. If you owned the property at the time the mortgage was executed by a co-owner, the lender cannot foreclose on your interest at all. If you received your interest by deed after the mortgage was executed the lender can take possession of the property and you will be dispossessed of your interest.
Are you obligated for the mortgage if your name is on the title?
You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.You are obligated for paying the loan if you signed the mortgage. If your name was added to the title after the mortgage was granted then you received your interest subject to the mortgage. If it isn't paid the lender will take possession of the property by foreclosure. If your name was on the title prior to the mortgage and the lender didn't have you consent to the mortgage then the lender made a big mistake and can only take possession of the interest of the person who did sign the mortgage.
What types of requests for information are typically received by a HIM department attorney patient health care provider?
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What is deductible when there is a loss in real estate invested?
There are so much information needed to answer this question but the general rule is that as long as it is a TRUE investment and not a personal residence then all costs related to the property are deductible but not the mortgage amount as you were not taxed when you received the mortgage-but again-beware there are many questions that must be asked before this topic is complete.
If your name is not on the mortgage and you contribute towards it how do you stand if you get divorced with kids involved?
It will depend on the specifics of your situation and the laws of your state regarding whether the property is considered to be separate property or marital property. Even if your name is not on the mortgage/title, it would likely be considered marital property if it was purchased (not received by/purchased from funds received by gift or inheritance) during the marriage. Check the laws of your state regarding divorce/property distribution. * The names on the mortgage only indicate the persons responsible for the repayment of the loan. Ownership of any property is determined by how said property is titled. In community property states all property acquired during a marriage is considered jointly owned. In non-community property if the title does not contain both spouse's names state laws governing marital property take precedence, usually it will be resolved by equitable distribution.
Can a mortgage company sue for the entire amount of a second mortgage after foreclosure even though they received money to cover the first and some of the second after the sale of the property?
First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.
Can a bank put a second mortgage on a property without notifying the owner of the property?
In most states and with most banks, the answer is no. It can get complicated in a couple of states though. I am aware of several cases where a more that one person was on title for a home. Only one of them applied for and received a second mortgage, the other was not aware.It is best to check on your state laws.If you are the only one on title, I can not see this happening with a 2nd mortgage.
In Texas how do you show home ownership while making mortgage payments and executing a will?
Home ownership is shown by Deed, which you should have received when you obtained the property and which should be filed with the County Clerk.
Can you sign quitclaim deed if you still owe mortgage company?
Quitclaim deeds do not release the person quitting claim from their obligations under a mortgage, although a quit claim deed is a step in the right direction. In order to remove the party who quits claim from the mortgage, you must refinance the mortgage in the name of the party to whom title or interest in the property has been conveyed. The credit scores, income and assets of the party quitting claim can no longer be used for the mortgage, and this has traditionally meant trouble for borrowers seeking to refinance to remove the party who quit claim. Quit Claim deed refinancing can be a complex situation, which requires sensitivity and specific expertise in handling refinance transactions pursuant to quit claim deeds.If you have received property or plan to receive property through the execution of a quit claim deed, for example in case of divorce, the only way to finalize ownership of property and mortgage in your own name is to refinance the mortgage once the property is deeded to you, however the overwhelming majority of lenders will not allow you to refinance property unless you have been on title to the property for at least 12 months..
How can I lower the principal on my residential mortgage?
You can lower the principal on your residential mortgage by paying extra each month to be applied the principal. For more information view you amortization schedule that you should have received at closing or plug in your numbers are http://www.amortization-calc.com/.
In Massachusetts can a lender foreclose on the surviving spouses house if the home loan was made in the deceased's name only?
Generally: If the property was owned solely by the mortgagor at the time the mortgage was granted, the lender can foreclose on the mortgage if the mortgage isn't paid. The mortgage is a lien on the property. If the surviving spouse has inherited the property it is still subject to the mortgage lien. The foreclosure will be done against the mortgagor, however, the surviving spouse will lose the property if it isn't paid for. If the property was owned by both spouses and the surviving spouse didn't sign the mortgage then the lender has a problem. It can only foreclose on the mortgagor's interest in the property and not the interest of the surviving spouse. The situation is further complicated for the lender if the spouses held title as tenants by the entirety. Please advise if that is the case by using the discussion page. If possible, you should consult with an attorney who could review your situation and advise you of your options. You should be able to get the preliminary advice you need in a single visit. You should bring a copy of your deed and any correspondence you have received from the lender.
Where can one reverse their mortgage?
There are a couple of places where someone can reverse their mortgage. The best place to check would be the location or company where you first received your mortgage.
