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To avoid many of the entitlements associated with nobility that the colonists were frustrated with. It was also an attempt to keep the playing field level for all people to avoid class creation.

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Q: What is the reason for prohibiting the state from granting titles of royalty or nobility?
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Why did the founding fathers rule that congress cannot give title of nobility?

The reason the founding fathers prohibited the title of nobility is a replusion for the English monarchy. Remember, they had just successfully became independent from England and King George was not exactly a celebrity.


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How were rich women treated in medieval times?

Women of wealth were not usually treated any different than men. The reason for this is that wealthy women were usually someone connected to royalty. Still, the role of women would never be confused with the superiority of men.


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None, zip, zilch. They couldn't read or write ( this is why there are stain glass windows in churches to teach the bible stories and why we give testimony in court). The only people who could read were the clergy and some Nobility. This is one reason it is called the "dark ages". The light of learning had been blown out. It is also easier to make people slaves when they aren't educated ( think about that).


Is 'raj' a Sikh jatt surname?

Sikhism explicitly outlaws any caste-based stratification of society. Caste- or nobility-based surnames are therefore not allowed for Sikhs. And therefore, you cannot claim to be both a Sikh and a Jatt. This-as well as the obvious reason that there is no such thing as a uniquely "Sikh" surname other than Singh (for males) and Kaur (for females)-renders the question of "Raj" moot.

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What was the reason corgi dogs where made?

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Did Queens wear crowns during the Renaissance?

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Were there any women in politics during the civil war?

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