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Because of militias.

The Second Amendment states: "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." Odd place to start this isn't it?

Why was the term "free State" used, rather than "free Nation" or "free Country"? Actually, the term "free Country" appeared in the original version of the Second Amendment. However, the wording was changed to appease slave owners. Why? Because prominent southern slaveholders wanted the Bill of Rights to sanction slave control militias.

Militias which at that time were the principal instruments of slave control throughout the South. The southern slave control militias authorized by the revised Second Amendment were not small affairs.

They were huge, compulsory networks. George Mason, a Virginia delegate to the U.S. Constitutional Congress who has been called the "Father of the Bill of Rights," confirmed that the southern militias were comprised of all white male citizens with only a few exceptions: a few public officers.

Two decades before the Revolutionary War, the state of Georgia passed laws that required all plantation owners or their white male employees to enlist. The Georgia militias were required to make monthly inspections of all the state's slave quarters. According to Professor Bogus, "The Georgia statutes required patrols, under the direction of commissioned militia officers, to examine every plantation each month and authorized them to search 'all Negro Houses for offensive Weapons and Ammunition' and to apprehend and give twenty lashes to any slave found outside plantation grounds."

Blacks outnumbered whites in many areas. Thus, armed state militias were required to "keep the peace." So Virginia's delegates demanded that the Bill of Rights include one granting white citizens the right to bear arms and form state militias.

`Professor Carl T. Bogus of the Roger Williams University School of Law

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Q: Why were slave revolts so few in the US?
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