Probability

16.66... % of the time - if the die is fair. And the percentage is not affected by the number of times you roll it.

P(5 cards of diamonds in a deck) = (13/52 * 12/51 * 11/50 * 10/49 * 9/48)

= 4.95 * 10^-4

1/6 for each one

but for both it is 2/6

if a number has an odd number of factors it would be a perfect square

First, let's note that the probability of at least 1 green one, will be theprobability of 1 green one + probability of two green ones. We only have two green marbles so we need not look at probability of greater than2 green ones. Now, there are 14 marbles total. When you grab three, you want to know what is the chance 1 or 2 of the 3 is green. One way to look at it is to say mathematically that picking two marbles at once is the same as picking one marble, then picking another, without putting the first marble back. So the we can pick the first green marble in 2/14 ways. Now if we pick another marble there is only 1 green left, so the there is a 1/13 chance we will pick it. That means there is 12 in 13 that we don't And since we are picking 3 marbles, the odd the third one is green is 1/12 if the second one is not. SO the odds of it NOT being green are 11/12 So the odds of exactly 1 green is 2/14x12/13x 11/12 and the odds of 2 exactly two greens is 2/14x1/13x. Since there are only two greens, the chance that the third is green is 0, so we don't need to worry about that. (The odds the third one is not green is 1. So we could say we are multiplying by 1.) Add these together for the desired answer. (2/14 x 12/13 x 11/12)+(2/14 x 1 /13)= 11/91+1/91=12/91 Another methods works as well. There are 3C2=6 ways to pick 2 greens from 3 and we divide by 14C2=14x13x/2=6/91 since this is the number of ways of picking 2 greens from 14 total marbles Now to this we add 3C1/91=3/91 since this is the number of ways of picking 1 green from 3 divided by 91 as above. The sum is again 12/91 (This is about .131868 or 13 percent)

3/8

* * * * *

That is the probability of getting EXACTLY 1H. The prob of getting one (or more) head is 7/8

It depends on the standard deviation and risk of the new stock.

One and a half. But, since that is not possible, 1 or 2 will have to do.

It's a mystery. need detetive conan.

A single curve cannot touch "each other" since "each other" implies two curves.

A half pint is a unit of volume. 6 inches is a unit of length. The two units are not comparable.

Probability of not drawing a black six from a deck of cards = 1 - probability of drawing a black 6 = 1 - 2/52 = 50/52 = 25/26.

3 out of 4?

About 2/3 of the time.

The best way to do this is to note that this is 1 minus the probability of obtaining a sum less than 6.

The probability of obtaining a 2 is 1/36 (both dice get 1)

The probability of obtaining a 3 is 1/18 (one dice gets 1, the other gets 2, or the other way around)

The probability of obtaining a 4 is 1/12 (both dice get 2, or one dice gets 1 and the other 3, or the other way around)

The probability of obtaining a 5 is 1/9 (one dice gets 2 and the other 3, or the other way around, or one dice gets 1 and the other 4, or the other way around)

Adding these probabilities up gives 5/18. 1 minus this is 13/18

Thus the probability of obtaining a sum of at least 6 when rolling a pair of dice is 13/18.

1 chance in 12 tries

it is all about chance my dear girl/boy but most likely a 1.98007657 chance

Certainly.

13

1/13

thas so true

The data sets determine the degrees of freedom for the F-test, nit the other way around!

There are 999-99 = 900 3 digit numbers.

Of these 9*10 = 90 are palindromic (read the same either way)

So the probability is 90/900 or 0.1

Only if the two peaks are exactly the same.