I am not an attorney or an accountant or even a licensed real estate agent, but I do sell my own land in Texas. This is offered as information only and not professional advice. You should consult an attorney or accountant who can offer you counsel based on all the specifics of your situation.
In my limited experience in Texas, the deed-holding property owner is responsible for taxes on the property. If you purchase property under a contract for deed, you may or may not be able to claim the taxes as a deduction. It depends on your contract or other written agreements. If the property owner escrows money for taxes and pays them on your behalf, then you probably get the deduction. If it is not specified, then the property owner may be taking the deduction. SB198, which was effective Sept. 1, 2001, requires that the property owner send you an annual statement each year before January 31st. This statement should indicate “the amounts paid to taxing authorities on the purchaser’s behalf if collected by the seller.” If the amount is “0,” then the property owner is most probably paying and taking the deduction for taxes. You should ask them. Preferably in writing. Be sure to keep a copy for documentation.
P.S. You can contact the local appraisal district to find out if there are delinquent taxes on the property. If the property owner is not paying the taxes, you could have problems.
I am not an attorney or an accountant or even a licensed real estate agent, but I do sell my own land in Texas. This is offered as information only and not professional advice. You should consult an attorney or accountant who can offer you counsel based on all the specifics of your situation.
In my limited experience in Texas, the deed-holding property owner is responsible for taxes on the property. If you purchase property under a contract for deed, you may or may not be able to claim the taxes as a deduction. It depends on your contract or other written agreements. If the property owner escrows money for taxes and pays them on your behalf, then you probably get the deduction. If it is not specified, then the property owner may be taking the deduction. SB198, which was effective Sept. 1, 2001, requires that the property owner send you an annual statement each year before January 31st. This statement should indicate “the amounts paid to taxing authorities on the purchaser’s behalf if collected by the seller.” If the amount is “0,” then the property owner is most probably paying and taking the deduction for taxes. You should ask them. Preferably in writing. Be sure to keep a copy for documentation.
P.S. You can contact the local appraisal district to find out if there are delinquent taxes on the property. If the property owner is not paying the taxes, you could have problems.
Yes, a voluntary repossession does not mean the buyer is not responsible for any of the remaining loan debt according to the original contract terms or for any additional fees.
Both the buyer and co-buyer are equally and completely responsible. All parties on a contract are 100% responsible to pay the note in full per the terms of the contract. Neither person is "more" responsible than the other. My suggestion is to help the bank find the auto and they may cut you some slack on the any remaining balance after the sale out of good faith but they have no obligation to do so.
ANYONE who's name is on the loan contract is responsible for the debt. Who will sell someone a car and that someone NOT be responsible for paying?? NOT ME LOL
You cannot return the car. The Buyer's Remorse law does not apply to vehicles. It only applies to unsolicited sales.
Oklahoma does not allow a consumer to return a newly purchased vehicle. Once the contract is signed the car belongs to the buyer.
You can't. Once you sign a contract, there is no "buyer's remorse" law pertaining to automobiles. If you sign the contract and then it breaks into 2 pieces on the way home, then you own both pieces.
The basic definition of multimodal transport is goods that are transported using only 1 contract between a carrier and the buyer. The carrier is the one responsible for the goods until they are delivered to the buyer.
A buyer cannot return a car within 72 hours of purchase in California, as the Lemon laws do not apply. The 72 hour cooling off period does not exist unless the buyer acquires a contract cancellation option.
It depends upon the specific terms and conditions of the contract. If the contract simply states it is the buyer's obligation to secure financing, then you can NOTcancel the contract. If the contract states that the agreement is conditional upon the buyer's ability to secure a loan, then you CAN cancel the contract.
One can return a used car in California. This is if a used car buyer has obtained a two-day contract cancellation option, and the used car is advertised as certified.
If your question is "can the contract be null and void" if signed only by the primary buyer and not by the co-signer? Depends. If the contract is in both names-yes. If the contract is typed up "only" in the buyer name-no. If the loan is conditioned to both signing, yes.
A contract, if properly drafted, is enforceable. If the buyer requests a release the seller can negotiate or keep the deposit.