I do not know about for all of Europe but the Versailles treaty left Germany paying huge amounts of money to France and Belgium in 'Reparations Payments'. Poland was declared an independent nation and was given it's own sea port, separating Germany into two halves with what was called the 'Polish Corridor'. The Alsace and Lorraine regions lost to Germany in the Franco Prussian war were given back to France. The reparations payments were agreed to stop in the early 1920s when Germany went into economic crisis, but Germany had still payed back Billions of dollars by today's standards to France
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Addition:
As a German myself, I'd like to add a little to that: In the Versailles Treaty, reperations were not dealt with. Instead, it was agreed to conference about them in 1921 (the treaty was signed in 1919). But first to the treaty: In it, the French gained the right to use the "Saargebiet" economically for 15 years (mainly to gain Natural Resources). Other areas were also lost, such as German colonies in Africa (they actually brought Germany a financial minus, so that wasn't considered a big deal from the German side). Considering the 5 million Franc the French were forced to pay after the war in 1871 (the German Monarchy was actually founded in France.. They didn't like that too much), and the uniqueness of the WWI (in it's "totalness"), the reperations were fairly low, allowing the German economy to regain strength. The reperations were pretty complicated, with a total of 7 treaties and a lot of confusion.
However, I am wondering if with your question you mean what aid did Germany become in building back up? In that case:
1924 - Dawes-Plan
Goal: Make the reperations depend on how much Germany can pay
Result: German economy has to be helped so that it can pay later on; Germany was given a loan over 800 Mill. Goldmark; 2.5 were to be paid by Germany annually
1929 - Young-Plan
Goal: As the payments from Germany according to the Dawes-Plan turned out to be unrealisitc, a permanent solution was needed
Result: Germans were allowed to participate in the negotiations for the first time; payments were lowered
1931 - Hoover-Moratorium
The Payments were allowed to stagnate for 1 year
I hope I helped you out a little :-)
NO! The Civil War was between secessionist Confederate states and the US government. WW1 was between two allied groups of feuding European nations.
To stay out of European affairs.
Every European conflict and grievance was represented in the fighting of WW1.
There were various alliances following WW11. The United Nations was formed in part from FDR. He believed the strict punishments against Germany after WW1 led to Hitler's aggressive state which could have been mediated if there was a outlet for Hitler to address his grievances. Also, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization was formed as military alliance of European nations and the U.S. against the communist Soviets.
Wilson's grand plan I believe and the final point was the league of nations.
Most of European nations had Democracy gov after ww1
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there was no losing nations in ww1
After WW1
There were no communist nations in WW1......
The World Court
League of Nations was after WW1 and United Nations was after WW2
NO! The Civil War was between secessionist Confederate states and the US government. WW1 was between two allied groups of feuding European nations.
To stay out of European affairs.
Britain, France and Russia
Put under the League of Nations control
The aeroplane was made for fast transport and to aid the army in WW1