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In medieval and early modern times many European countries had various kinds of parliaments (assemblies of the estates of the realm). From about 1600 onwards absolute monarchs in Continental Europe busily tried to make these bodies powerless. In England, King James I (1603-25) and his son, Charles I (1625-49) tried to do much the same. Both failed ignominiously. The English Parliament was probably a little more respresentative than its Continental counterparts, and the English middle classes were already powerful enough to resist the absolute monarchy. Moreover, the standard Continental excuse for crushing all dissent - the claim that 'the enemy is at the gates' - just didn't even begin to make sense in England. Between about 1605 and 1640 all kinds of fictitious notions about the limited powers of the monarchy (reinterpretation of Magna Carta and so on) gained widespread acceptable. Eleven years after the beheading of Charles I the monarhcy was restored, but it was a much reduced monarchy. :)

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16y ago
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Q: What conditions in England made the execution of one king and the overthrow of another possible?
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