answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

Well, the big reason antebellum was that the pro-slavery senators would have just voted it down (the pro-slavery representatives would have too, but that wasn't a guarantee because the number of representatives depends on population, and the south, where slavery was generally permitted, was being out-populated by the north, where it wasn't -- each state regardless of size gets the same number of senators, though, so as long as there were no more free states than slave states, the senate was the big roadblock in the passage of any such law).

Before 1804, the slave states were a majority. The first 13 states had 8 states where slavery was permitted and 5 where it wasn't. Then Vermont joined as a free state, making it 8 to 6, followed by Tennessee and Kentucky as slave states (10 to 6). In 1799 New York abolished slavery (9 to 7, still favorable to the slave states).

However, the 1803 admission of Ohio and the abolishion of slavery in New Jersey in 1804 made the total 8-9. Suddenly the slave states were in a minority, and the growing movement for general abolition started to look like it might become a real concern to them.

The admission of Louisiana (as a slave state) in 1812 balanced the two factions, and after that the slave states considered it a matter of vital importance that free states not gain a senate majority. Indiana (free) was admitted in 1816, followed by the admission of Mississippi (slave) in 1817. Illinois (free) in 1818, Alabama (slave) in 1819.

And then things got messy. Missouri wanted to join as a slave state, but anti-slavery forces in the House tacked on a rider (almost certainly unconstitutional, in hindsight) that would have admitted it as a slave state with "poison pill" laws regarding slavery that would have resulted in it eventually becoming de facto if not de jure a free state (the law specified that no new slaves could be brought into Missouri, and the children of slaves born after its admission into the Union would become free upon reaching the age of 25). The Senate rejected this amendment, and the whole measure stalled. Also, Massachusetts was trying to split its territory into two states (with the southern part remaining Massachusetts and the northern part becoming Maine). Maine would, like Massachusetts, have been a free state at the outset.

The Missouri Compromise allowed the admission of Maine as a free state and the admission of Missouri as a slave state (without the "poison pill" rider). An additional provision was added that forbade slavery in new states created from the former Louisiana Territory north of the southern border of (most of) the state of Missouri, with the exception of Missouri itself.

This lasted until 1854, with free and slave states being admitted approximately in pairs: Arkansas (slave) and Michigan (free) in 1836 and 1837, Florida and Texas (slave) in 1845 followed by Iowa and Wisconsin (free) in 1846 and 1848.

The admission of California in 1850 (a free state, but with one pro-slavery senator) maintained the balance in senators if not in states.

However, at this point, pretty much all of the Louisiana Territory where slave states could be formed had been "used up" and was now already part of an existing state, while there was still quite a bit left for free states to form. Slavery was permitted in Indian Territory (now most of the state of Oklahoma) but that was, well, Indian Territory and not likely to become a state (and gain the vital senate seats) any time soon; it was also allowed in the sparsely populated New Mexico Territory but that wasn't really an immediately viable candidate for statehood either. However, the relatively fertile remainder of the former Louisiana Territory (where slavery was forbidden) was getting close, especially the portion that had already been separated off as the Kansas Territory, with at least the southern part of the Nebraska territory not far behind.

The pro-slavery states considered this an intolerable situation, and the Kansas-Nebraska Act was passed in 1854, effectively abolishing the Missouri Compromise northern limit on slavery and allowing popular soverignty in the territories petitioning for statehood to determine whether the state would be admitted as a slave or free state. Thousands of partisans (both pro- and anti-slavery) flooded the territories to attempt to swing the vote in their preferred direction. It wasn't all limited to genteel cultured debates, either; look up "Bleeding Kansas" sometime.

Still, as a practical matter, this is what kept Congress from passing a nationwide anti-slavery law. But the admission of Minnesota (1858) and Oregon (1860) as free states, with Kansas looking likely to follow suit (which it did, in 1861) is what prompted most of the pro-slavery states to attempt to secede from the Union to avoid such a law.

It could be argued (and was) that such a law would have been unconstitutional, and there's some merit to this viewpoint, since the Constitution grants certain very specific powers to the Federal government while allowing the states themselves to retain sovereignty in all matters not explicitly reserved to the Federal government. The 13th amendment explicitly forbade slavery in the Constitution itself (a Constitutional amendment, properly made, by definition cannot be unconstitutional) and the 14th amendment explicitly spelled out that no right granted to citizens by the US Constitution could be abridged or revoked by any state law or constitution, which closed down that particular line of argument.

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: What was the reason that Congress could not just pass a law to outlaw slavery?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

How could one of the major organizations within the federal government effectively overcome the supreme courts ruling to allow federal government to outlaw burning a flag?

Congress could propose a constitutional amendment that would outlaw flag burning


How did the dread Scott decision upset the north?

It upset them because the ruling basically made stated that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere because slaves where property of the slave owner, and therefore protected by the 5th amendment.


Who condoned slavery in the South?

The institution of slavery was deemed legal by the US Supreme Court in 1857. This was part of the Dred Scott decision handed down by the Court. The Court decision said that slaves were "property". It also said that Congress nor the US President could outlaw slavery. This had to be done by an amendment to the US Constitution which did by the 13th amendment.


What provision of slavery appeared in the US Constitution?

The United States Constitution contains a specific provision that says that the federal government could not outlaw slavery until at least the year 1808.


Why did the northerners in congress accept California application for statehood while southerners reject it?

The issue was slavery. California was expected to be admitted as a free state. The South knew that with enough more free states, the free states could get an amendment passed to outlaw slavery and so they wanted to prevent that possibility by keeping the number of free and slave states as equal as possible.


Why were abolitionist angered by the Dred Scott decision?

Because the decision showed that the Supreme Court didn't think that any State could outlaw slavery.


What Supreme Court case stated that Congress could not forbid slavery in any territory?

the English court


What was the supreme courts decision in the Dred Scott case?

They decided that Dred Scott was still considered a slave and could not exercise the right of a free citizen to suethe reaction of that was that they claimed the the missouri compromise to be unconstitutionalThe answer apex folks would want is: Blacks weren't citizens and Congress couldn't outlaw slavery in the territories.


What was the Supreme Court's decision in the Dred Scott case?

They decided that Dred Scott was still considered a slave and could not exercise the right of a free citizen to suethe reaction of that was that they claimed the the missouri compromise to be unconstitutionalThe answer apex folks would want is: Blacks weren't citizens and Congress couldn't outlaw slavery in the territories.


Did the dred Scott decision make slavery illegal?

Yes. Congress could NOT tell territories or states not to have slaves.


Why couldn't congress ban the slave trade but they could tax imports and exports.?

Congress has the complete and plenary power to tax whatever is taxable and the power to tax is the power to destroy. It is arguable that Congress could have taxed slavery into oblivion and perhaps civil war could have been avoided. Look at the heavy and progressive taxation on cigarettes and how that has encouraged many a smoker to simply quit smoking. Of course, sadly, I am a smoker and find noting simple about quitting smoking, so unfortunately pay these heavy taxes just to sustain an addiction. So, perhaps taxing slavery into oblivion would not have worked. The real point is that Congress couldn't ban slavery in the Constitution until Congress existed and at the time the Constitution was being forged there wasn't yet a Congress, (not under the Federalist system created), to ban slavery. Once congress could ban the slave trade, Congress eventually did with the Thirteenth Amendment.


Idea that a state could outlaw or refuse to obey a law passed by congress?

yey yeh hi im gonna tell you but i dont no what this means im dumb