Before the colonies declared their independence, there was little chance to vote. The King of England was the ruler, and his word was law, enforced by the Royal Governors in each colony. But when the US declared itself a free country, individual states decided to create their own constitutions. Unfortunately, they used the model they knew best-- the one from England, where women could not vote, nor could members of minority religions (such as Jews). Originally, the plan was to only allow free-born white men who owned land (the upper-class, in other words) to vote; but gradually, it was decided to allow any free-born white man, with or without land, to cast a ballot in local and state elections. Black men, women, and in some of the states, Jews and Catholics, were not given the vote. But once the federal constitution established freedom of religion (First Amendment), Jewish and Catholic men did get that right, no matter where they lived. Free black men up north were theoretically allowed to vote, but it varied from state to state; in the south, on the other hand, even free black men were generally discouraged from voting.
The colonies met the needs for government by going to town meetings to vote but only men could vote.
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
THe hopless lozzas held the right to vote in the southern colonies
Around 1609, the Dutch (colonists from the Netherlands) were the first to settle the New York region, which they called "New Netherland." The city of New Amsterdam became New York when it was taken over by the British in 1667.
By mutual consent all thirteen had to vote in favor of independence. That's why the formal document (the "Declaration of Independence") specifically points out that this is a unanimous declaration.(This does not mean every single individual in Congress, but that each colony's/state's delegation would vote, and a majority of "no's" in any delegation would defeat the measure.)
Only white men who owned land could vote
The colonies met the needs for government by going to town meetings to vote but only men could vote.
No. The Constitution was ratified by the thirteen original colonies long before Kansas was US territory.
Property
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
In the middle colonies, the right to vote was typically limited to free white men who owned property. This excluded women, Native Americans, African Americans, and those without property from voting in elections.
White men property owners
Only white males are able to vote because they are the only citizens in the colonies.Because only citizens are able to vote.
No. Women didn’t have the right to vote until 1920. This was well past the colonial period.
the women's did not have full rights because they could not vote
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato