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Before we get to answering this question we need to remember that the U.S. of 1938 and today were very different from one another. In 1938 the U.S. was an industrial power recovering from a severe economic downturn ( the Great Depression). It's people and much of its government were not interested in getting involved in foreign wars. The people of the U.S. would have preferred that Europe did not fight but did not want to spill U.S. blood if they did. The U.S. due to interwar budget cuts was neither a major military power aside from its navy. The army and air corps were small and ill supplied until the rebuilding started in 1939-1940. Isolationism ran strong in the U.S. partly due to the results of World War I which left many people unhappy on both sides of the Atlantic. It took a swift kick in the U.S. backside (Pearl harbor) by Japan and declarations of war from Germany and Italy to break the U.S. from the isolationist stance irrevocably. European appeasement of Hitler was a strictly European matter to the U.S. public. The U.S. was not in a position, nor wanted to be in a position at the time to have a direct say in how the U.K. and France dealt with Hitler diplomatically.

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โˆ™ 2006-05-30 03:19:24
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Q: Why did the United States allow appeasement and isolation?
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