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Macbeth

The tragedy of Macbeth was written by William Shakespeare, probably between 1603 and 1606. The play has been adapted into operas, movies, television programs, and other books.

3,692 Questions

What is a thane?

In Anglo-Saxon England, a thane would have been a man who held land granted by the king or by a military nobleman, ranking between an ordinary freeman and a hereditary noble.

In relation to Scottish history, a thane was a man who was often the chief of a clan who held land from the king and ranked equal with an earl's son.

What does Duncan announce in scene 4?

Duncan announces that Malcolm is heir to the throne. This is crucial to the devlopment of the play because Macbeth's chances of becoming king are reduced.

Which lines in this excerpt from Macbeth act I scene 5 show that Lady Macbeth doubts Macbeths willpower?

Yet do I fear thy nature; it is too full of the milk o' human kindness to catch the nearest way. Thou wouldst be great, art not without ambition, but without the illness should attend it; what thou wouldst highly, that wouldst thou holily.

Who fulfills the witches' prophecy of not being born of a woman?

Macduff, who did have a mother but was not born naturally. He was born by surgery, by Caesarian section, or as Shakespeare has it, was "from (his) mother's womb untimely ripp'd."

Who is angry at the three witches who were predicting the future of Macbeth?

Hecate was angry at the three witches who were predicting the future of Macbeth

What does Macbeth see that supports the idea that he feels guilty about killing banquo?

Banquo's ghost, which shows up at the dinner party the Macbeths are throwing. Only Macbeth can see him.

When banquo says thou play'dst most foully for t' he means?

He means he's sceptical of Macbeth's rise to power and starts to doubt that Macbeth acted righteously for the position of king, despite the witches' prophecy saying he would be king. It also shows his uncertainty in the witches as he doesn't have full trust in their prophecies

Why does Macbeth claim he killed King Duncan's guards?

He says he was overcome with rage because they had killed Duncan.

Which translation of the passage best explains Macbeth's reasoning for not murdering Duncan?

Duncan is a guest in my house and I should be protecting him, not harming him myself.

What do the Doctor and Gentlewoman see Lady Macbeth doing?

The Doctor and Gentlewoman watch Lady Macbeth sleepwalk. She incessantly rubs her hands together, trying to wash off imaginary spots of blood. The blood represents her guilt that she is unable to shake off.

What are Macbeth's desires?

Macbeth has many desires. The desire that moved him most was his desire to be king and to satisfy his wife's ambitions.

How did Macbeth change in act 2 scene 1?

After being convinced by Lady MacBeth to kill Duncan, MacBeth goes to extra lengths to show innocence for the act he has not yet committed. When asked by Banquo, "who's there?" MacBeth answers "a friend" in which he means not a foe. He also lies to Banquo about thinking about the witches and their predictions. He says he has not thought of them when he has done so considerably. He is now acting the part of an innocent man that is really evil because he is planning on killing Duncan.

Did Shakespeare write Macbeth?

Yes, William Shakespeare [Baptized April 26, 1564-April 23, 1616] wrote 'The Tragedy of Macbeth'. He most likely wrote the play no earlier than 1603, and no later than 1606 or 1607. The choice of a tragic theme, the harmonization of the play with the interests of the prevailing monarch, the presentation of a range of personality types, and the use of compelling dialogue were hallmarks of 'Macbeth' and of the other Shakespearean tragedies.

How does Malcolm explain about the state of Macbeth's army?

Malcolm says on the battlefield, Macbeth's army has been delibertly missing them. It seems no one wishes for Macbeth to be king, not even his own side!

Why do you suppose Macbeth did not kill Banquo with his own hands as he killed Duncan and his two guards?

Well there is a theory that actually Macbeth was there when Banquo was killed, and Macbeth was actually the third murderer. (Kind of unlikely since the other two murderers know Macbeth and would have recognized him) Also if you don't accept this theory, Macbeth might have not killed Banquo with his own hands because by that time he was already king, and he had the finance and the oppurtunity to hire murderers.

As Macbeth himself says in Act 3 scene one from line 125, he does have the power to openly have Banquo destroyed, "yet I must not, for certain friends that are both his and mine, whose loves I may not drop, but wail his fall who I myself strike down." Yet this is just an excuse, a lie because Macbeth knows that there is no good reason for Banquo and Fleance to be killed and so he could not have him openly accused of anything. Macbeth knows that Banquo and Fleance are innocent. He orders their murder out of fear that the throne will be taken away from him and that Banquo's decendants will inherit it.

What do the critics say about Macbeth?

ac bradley says the first half of the play is better than the second!

Does Lady Macbeth help in Macbeth's downfall?

Lady Macbeth plays a major role in the downfall of Macbeth. She was the one that convinced Macbeth to commit the murder of Duncan, believing that power would bring them happiness. This is the first crime that we see in the play that Macbeth has commited. After the murder of Duncan, Macbeth is made king. He has lots of power and he craves to use it, but was never happy, causing his downfall. When Lady Macbeth commits suicide is another key point in Macbeth's downfall because as he has seen so much death and caused pain to so many others he becomes numb to it and no longer cares about anything, and wishes to die himself although he does not consider suicide like Lady Macbeth this is shown when he says "Why should I play the roman fool and die on my own sword?"

Lady Macbeth also plays a major part in the downfall of Macbeth as from the moment when she takes the bloody daggers off Macbeth after he kills Duncan she starts turning mad throughout the whole of the play up until the point when she commits suicide. Lady Macbeth suffers from a guilty conscience during most of the play and starts sleepwalking, imagining that she still has blood and her hands so she tries to wash it off. This is also important in Macbeth's downfall because it emotionally affects him and he himself starts going mad by having dreams and seeing the ghost of Banquo as well as contributing to the suspicion that falls on Macbeth.

What is Macbeth's tragic flaw?

Macbeth's tragic flaw is not his ambition, although this has been a favourite platitude for centuries, and was actually written in as a line for Macbeth before he died by some well-meaning adapter.

"Vaulting ambition, which o'erleaps itself

And falls on the other."

(Macbeth, lines 27-28, Act 1 Scene 7).

These are lines spoken by Macbeth when deciding whether to commit the murder. He clearly holds ambition in contempt. His decision is that ambition is not a sufficient motive to kill Duncan and he tells his wife so. Nevertheless he is persuaded by her to commit the murder anyway. Once he is king (that's at the beginning of Act 3) none of his actions from there to the end of the play can be motivated by ambition, because he has as much as he can expect to get. There is nothing more to be ambitious for. What leads to his downfall is more his inability to say no to his wife, and his paranoia. Lady Macbeth, on the other hand, is moved by ambition, and she specifically comments on her unhappiness in finding that, having achieved her ambition, it has turned to ashes in her mouth. "Nought's had, all's spent, when desire is had without content."

What did the critics say about 'Macbeth'?

Critics believe that the character of Banquo was initially a murderer, however, that identity was scrapped for one of a nobleman. However, Banquo was believed to be an ancestor of James I, so his character was changed to avoid trouble with the king. The place of Duncan's death was also changed from him being set upon and killed on the road, to death coming when he visited Macbeth's castle. King Duncan's character was changed from an inept king, whose job Macbeth already had to do, to the more benevolent Duncan, who was considered an apt king.

What happened to Lady Macbeth?

In the Shakespearean play, Lady Macbeth [b. c. 1015] committed suicide by unspecified means. Ironically, she told her husband that thinking too much about heinous deeds could only lead to madness. Equally ironic was her statement that a little water would wash the blood and the mental anguish out of their lives. Regarding the first statement, she followed her own advice, and lost her mind and then her life. Regarding the second statement, she couldn't remove the impact of the killing of King Duncan I [d. August 14, 1040] from her life and therefore went crazy and killed herself.

What is the literal meaning of Macbeth?

Macbeth is the name of a play written by William Shakespeare. It is rife with superstition, people consider it bad luck to say the name Macbeth aloud.

Macbeth's Downfall is his own fault?

Decisions are always hard to make, but have to be made everyday. People tend to put pressure on others to force them to make the wrong decisions. In Macbeth's case, Lady Macbeth is highly responsible for the evil doings of Macbeth, by forcing him to make the wrong choices, which puts his leadership at stake. She urges her husband to kill Duncan and become king, but is eventually driven to madness and suicide by her guilt over the bloodshed that follows. If it weren't for Lady Macbeth, Macbeth never would have killed anyone.

At first, Macbeth felt he had no reason to kill King Duncan, because of the witches' prophecies which stated that in the future, he will become king. "If chance will have me king, why, chance may crown me without my stir." However, when Lady Macbeth found out about the prophecy that stated that Macbeth will become king, she immediately felt reason to murder him. "Is too full o' the milk of human kindness" shows that Lady Macbeth considers Macbeth to be a "wimp," and that she'll have to do this all by herself. "Leave all the rest to me" clearly states that Lady Macbeth takes control over Macbeth's thought which was not to kill Duncan, for he found no reason to. Lady Macbeth continues to convince and persuade Macbeth into her "plan" which is to kill King Duncan. Macbeth agrees to follow Lady Macbeth's thoughts and kills King Duncan. He regrets his actions afterward, which is proof that he never was willing to kill him in the first place.

Macbeth has become deeply involved with murder, and eventually kills several others. This is proof that Lady Macbeth has transformed Macbeth into being a greedy, coldhearted human being, by saying things such as "Are you a man?" She undermines his masculinity, to make him feel at fault, and have it her way. Eventually, Lady Macbeth is driven to Madness by the guilt she holds on her shoulders, and ends up committing suicide. If it weren't for Lady Macbeth, Macbeth would have never killed anyone.

How is this modern figure like Macbeth and how different?

Your question is a non-sequitor as you do not say what modern figure. Restate your question, please.

Where was onomatopoeia used in Macbeth?

Well, I can only find one. I am some what looking hard for them but not too in depth. Basically what I have is after Macbeth murders Duncan he is in his palace with Lady Macbeth. "[Kocking] Knock, Knock, Knock! Who's there,"