Contract Law

An verbal agreement is something two or more parties have agreed to do, agreed not to do or an arrangement made verbally and not in writing.

In some jurisdictions a verbal agreement can be binding if there are truthworthy witesses to it, in other jurisdictions it may not be binding.

In a contract, a witness is an individual who observes the signing of the document and can attest to the authenticity of the signatures. The presence of a witness helps ensure that the parties involved willingly agreed to the terms, adding an extra layer of legitimacy and legal validity. Witnesses may be required for certain types of contracts, depending on jurisdiction and the nature of the agreement. Their signatures on the contract confirm that they witnessed the signing process.

Answering "http://wiki.answers.com/Q/Each_for_himself_and_God_for_us_all_that_is_the_law_to_what_extent_is_this_true_or_false_in_the_law_of_contract"Answering "http://wiki.answers.com/Q/Each_for_himself_and_God_for_us_all_that_is_the_law_to_what_extent_is_this_true_or_false_in_the_law_of_contract"Answering "http://wiki.answers.com/Q/Each_for_himself_and_God_for_us_all_that_is_the_law_to_what_extent_is_this_true_or_false_in_the_law_of_contract"

increase in the work required to be done by each worker

An employer can breach a contract by failing to fulfill their obligations as outlined in the agreement, such as not paying wages on time, denying agreed-upon benefits, or terminating an employee without just cause when the contract stipulates otherwise. Additionally, an employer may breach the contract by failing to provide a safe working environment or not adhering to specified job responsibilities. Such breaches can lead to legal consequences, including potential claims for damages by the affected employee.

there's: friendly offer .....kind offer

First, you must read your contract and look for any language regarding cancellation. There may be a cancellation fee or a minimum number of months that you must pay the membership fee.

Yes, because a contract can be voided for reasons other than illegality.

Only humans can be employees.

The employees of a subsidiary company are also the employees of the parent company, unless the subsidiary is unusually and intentionally independent.

The duration that it can take you to back out after signing a lease depends with the lease that you signed. However, if you discover any fraud you can always talk to your lawyer to have it reversed as soon as possible.

lossing your v card

115,000

Start legal proceedings immediately

contract with a minor is void abi nitio i.e., not valid from the beginning

It means that the case has been ruled on, and is completed and closed.

unilateral contract

Yes your sentence is correct

I trust you mean a hope for something or an expectancy of something. An expectancy is in fact what many contracts are based upon, if you define it as something that is expected in return for value given. And as to mere hope, as long as we're talking about a specific hope and not just some generalized feeling, sure, it's sold all the time too. In the securities area, people buy "futures" which is a "calculated gamble" or hope, or expectancy, that the price of something will be higher at a later date, and you are buying it at a low enough price today so that when sold on that later date for a higher price will yield a tidy profit and justifies the present expenditure and holding period. When people contract to buy a condominium governed by the federal Interstate Land Sales Act, there's a very good chance that the terms are that there's no guaranty that the condo will be built at all; the buyer takes a huge risk that it may never be built and after being locked into a contract for a few years may only get its money back (plus a litte interest perhaps) -- so why contract for the condo -- because we rely on the reputation of the builder to come through...

Just like a mortgage lender, a contract seller of real estate can ask the Court for permission to foreclose on real estate if a debtor in Chapter 13 does not keep the contract payments current. The contract seller would do this the same way a mortgage lender would, which is by filing a Motion for Relief from Stay with the Bankruptcy Court. The debtor has the opportunity to file an Objection to the Motion for Relief from Stay, but normally has to bring the payments current relatively soon (and then keep them current thereafter) to prevail on the Objection. State laws vary widely on what a contract seller may do once the relief from stay is granted, but if the contract seller is granted relief from the stay they would then presumably do whatever the particular State requires for them to regain possession of the real estate. Please note that nothing in this posting or in any other posting constitutes legal advice; this is simply my understanding of the facts, which I do not warrant, and I am not suggesting any course of action or inaction to any person.

The question, as phrased, is a TRUE statement.

Making a pro-forma contract is the first step in creating a contract once most of the terms and conditions are understood. The idea is that it is the "rough" copy of what will be, the final version of the contract. In the pro-forma contract there may still be elements to ad or modify.

The dealer typically never signs the contract when the customer does. The dealer principal does quite often. Sorry this is not a loophole, its still a binding contract. However if you signed an open contract where it doesn't say what bank anywhere on the contract its assigned to then a very good lawyer can help you. Sometimes dealers can have you sign a contact without getting an approval from a bank first so they can leave that part out for them to hand write it in later.

The difference is best illustrated by a couple of examples:

1. A minor attends a part at a friend's house while the parents are away, and particpates in causing damage to the house. There are laws that say in that case the parents of the minor can be liable for the damages. The minor is guilty of an intentional tort and is directly liable, but if the minor is unable to pay for the damages, the parents, who did not participate, are guilty by vicarious liability.

2. A delivery man in a company truck causes a traffic accident, injuring people and damaging property. It turns out the delivery man had a lousy driving record and his employer knew it but kept him on. The delivery man is guilty of negligence and is directly liable, and the employer is guilty vicariously for having knowingly kept a dangerous driver on as an employee.

In each case the persons who are liable "vicariously" did not participate in the underlying tortious conduct. In the former case the parents are guilty solely because the law wants to try to make parents responsible and more observant of their children's activities (and it would be unfair for the people whose home was damaged to be left without recourse, potentially if their insurance doesn't cover the damage and the minor has no money), but in case #2 the employer is guilty also of negligence, but a different kind.

tongue -