Computer Hardware

For starters:

• Hard drive
• Random Access Memory (RAM)
• Central Processing Unit (CPU)
• Motherboard
• Power Supply Unit (PSU)

HW2

1. What problem causes the fading phosphor to become noticeable, causing flickering and eye strain?

1. The resolution is too high
2. The vertical scan rate is too low
3. The vertical dot pitch is too narrow
4. The horizontal scan rate is too low

Objective: 37.5 Define refresh rate and its features, dot pitch, and interlaced and non-interlaced monitors.

2. Which of the following is not an offical graphics standard?

1. SVGA
2. EGA
3. VGA
4. CGA

Objective: 37.1 Define the video monitor's purpose.

3. Identify the device marked by "C."

1. RAMDAC
2. RAM
3. BIOS
4. Accelerator

Objective: 36.1 Define a video adapter and list major components: graphics accelerator, video memory, video BIOS, and RAMDAC.

4. Which video card component translates digital signals into analog signals?

1. Buffer
2. ADC
3. RAM
4. RAMDAC

Objective: 36.6 Describe RAMDAC features.

5. How many bits per pixel are required for 256 color operations?

1. 8 bits
2. 2 bits
3. 24 bits
4. 16 bits

Objective: 36.7 Define pixels and resolution.

6. What term describes SDRAM and SGRAM that can transfer twice per clock cycle?

1. Dynamic Data Transfer
2. Multi-transfer
3. Double Data Rate
4. Double Output Rate

Objective: 36.3 Describe video memory types: SDRAM, DDR SDRAM, SGRAM, DDR SGRAM, VRAM, and Cached DRAM/3DRAM.

7. Identify the type of memory described by the following section: "_________ supports dual porting, which permits memory to be written to, and written from at the same time."

1. SDRAM
2. MDRAM
3. VRAM
4. FPM DRAM

Objective: 36.3 Describe video memory types: SDRAM, DDR SDRAM, SGRAM, DDR SGRAM, VRAM, and Cached DRAM/3DRAM.

8. What devices connect to the computer using the interface pictured below?

1. Mouse
2. Keyboard
3. A and B
4. Speakers
5. All of the above

Objective: 38.1 Define and give examples of input devices.

9. What is the most likely cause of a mouse becoming sluggish or less responsive?

1. Dirt accumulation on the interface
2. Dirt accumulation on the ball and rollers.
3. Water condensation
4. Worn out drivers

Objective: 38.5 List mice components and describe mice features and function.

10. Which sound file format uses "Psycho-acoustical" compression?

1. MP3
2. WAV
3. CD
4. MIDI

Objective: 39.4 List features of MIDI, .WAV and .MP3 files.

11. How much storage space is used by a CD-quality recording every second (16-bit, 44100Hz. stereo)?

1. 44KB per second
2. 88KB per second
3. 22KB per second
4. 176KB per second

Objective: 39.3 Explain sample rate and sample size.

12. How many bits are required to display 65,536 colors?

1. 8-bits
2. 16-bits
3. 4-bits
4. 24-bits

Objective: 36.7 Define pixels and resolution.

13. Choose the selection below that correctly identifies the laser printing process.

1. Erasing, Cleaning, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing
2. Cleaning, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Erasing, Transferring, Fusing
3. Cleaning, Erasing, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing
4. Cleaning, Conditioning, Writing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing, Erasing

Objective: 41.5 List the seven laser printing steps.

14. Which stage of the laser printing process involves the scanning laser?

1. Writing
2. Developing
3. Conditioning
4. Lasering

Objective: 41.5 List the seven laser printing steps.

15. Which laser printing stage secures the toner to the paper?

1. Finishing
2. Fusing
3. Developing
4. Melting

Objective: 41.5 List the seven laser printing steps.

16. What laser printer component may need to be replaced if the toner on a printed page flakes or rubs off of the paper?

1. Fuser
2. Transfer corona
3. Primary Corona
4. Melting Array

Objective: 42.4 List different types of printer errors.

17. Which list properly identifies the different PC Card Standards?

1. Type I, II, III
2. Type M, S, I
3. Memory, Mass Storage, Peripheral
4. Type A, B, C

Objective: 43.7 Describe the PC card bus and explain Type I, II, and III PC card applications.

18. Which PC card is associated with NICs, SCSI add-ons, and modems?

1. Type B
2. Type II
3. Type I
4. Type M

Objective: 43.7 Describe the PC card bus and explain Type I, II, and III PC card applications.

19. The process of varying the frequency of electronic waves is called ________.

1. Demodulation
2. Valuation
3. Variation
4. Modulation

Objective: 44.2 Explain modulation/demodulation.

20. What is the AT command used to hang up the modem?

1. ATDT
2. ATL
3. ATM0
4. ATH0
5. None of the above

Objective: 44.8 List basic AT commands and their meanings.

21. Asynchronous communication requires a ___________ at the beginning of each data packet and a ___________ at end of each data packet.

1. Send bit, Receive bit
2. Go bit, Stop bit
3. Start bit, Stop bit
4. Open bit, Close bit

Objective: 44.5 Explain the modem handshake process.

22. A 56K modem communicates at 56 Kbps downstream when downloading or receiving data, but operates only at ________ Kbps upstream when uploading or sending data.

1. 53
2. 28.8
3. 33.6
4. 45

Objective: 44.9 List and compare different types of connections.

23. If a modem is installed on COM3 and the mouse, COM1, and the system continually experience random lockups and other problems, what can be done to resolve the problem?

1. Buy a COM splitter and install both the modem and the mouse on COM1.
2. Nothing, computers can not support both mice and modems at the same time.
3. Uninstall the modem from COM3 and reinstall it on COM2.
4. Change the IRQþ QCOM1 to IRQ1.

Objective: 44.6 Explain common modem troubleshooting strategies.

24. The Palm Pilot is an example of a ___________.

1. laptop
2. luggable
3. subnotebook
4. PDA

Objective: 43.2 List four portable computer types: laptop, notebook, subnotebook, and pocket computers.

25. What is Attenuation?

1. The amplification of a signal from interference.
2. The degradation of a signal over a certain transmission distance.
3. The conversion of a signal from analog to digital.
4. The transmission of a signal over radio wave.

Objective: 46.2 Cite parallel port features.

26. The first parallel port was able to send data at a rate of _______ bits at a time and receive ______ bit(s) at a time.

1. 4, 8
2. 8, 1
3. 8, 4
4. 4, 16

Objective: 46.2 Cite parallel port features.

27. Identify the interface that matches the connector pictured below.

1. Serial (COM)
2. RS-232C Port
3. USB
4. Parallel port
5. None of the above

Objective: 46.6 Define Universal Serial Bus and explain its advantages.

28. What connector is displayed below?

1. RJ-11
2. RJ-45
3. BNC
4. Telephone
5. None of the above

Objective: 46.5 Identify different connectors and their purposes.

29. What network device determines how data packets are transferred between networks?

1. Router
2. Repeater
3. Switch
4. Hub
5. None of the above

Objective: 47.6 List four network hardware types (bridge, router, repeater and hub) and their features.

30. To create a 100BaseT network, what type of cabling needs to be used?

1. CAT3 or better
2. CAT5
3. CAT4
4. Coaxial
5. All of the above will allow a 100BaseT network to be created.

Objective: 47.5 List four network media types (shielded twisted-pair cable, unshielded twisted-pair cable, coaxial cable, and fiber optic cable) and their features.

31. ThinNet can support distances up to __________.

1. 2km
2. 100m
3. 500m
4. 185m
5. 200m

Objective: 47.5 List four network media types (shielded twisted-pair cable, unshielded twisted-pair cable, coaxial cable, and fiber optic cable) and their features.

32. What network topology is displayed below?

1. Ring
2. Star
3. Bus
4. Mesh

Objective: 48.3 Compare and contrast the different types of network topologies.

33. At what speed does Fast Ethernet transmit data?

1. 10Mbps
2. 2.5Mbps
3. 100Mbps
4. 16Mbps
5. 1000Mbps (1Gbps)

Objective: 48.4 List different types of network architectures.

34. Which parallel port uses DMA?

1. ECP
2. SPP
3. Bi-Directional
4. EPP

Objective: 46.2 Cite parallel port features.

35. What type of connector does the parallel port use?

1. DB-9
2. DB-25
3. DB-15
4. Both B and C
5. None of the above

Objective: 46.2 Cite parallel port features.

36. How many devices can be connected to a USB chain at one time?

1. 480
2. 12
3. 127
4. 40

Objective: 46.6 Define Universal Serial Bus and explain its advantages.

37. Which BIOS screen is pictured below?

1. Standard CMOS Setup
2. PNP/PCI Configuration
3. Integrated Peripherals
4. BIOS Feature Setup

Objective: 51.3 Cite 12 BIOS Main Menu screen options and describe features of each: Standard CMOS Setup, BIOS Feature Setup, Chipset Features Setup, Power Management Setup, PNP/PCI Configuration, Load Setup Defaults, Integrated Peripherals, Supervisor Password, User Password, IDE HDD Auto Detection, Save and Exit Setup, and Exit Without Saving.

38. Which BIOS screen is pictured below?

1. BIOS Feature Setup
2. Standard CMOS Setup
3. Integrated Peripherals
4. PNP/PCI Configuration

Objective: 51.3 Cite 12 BIOS Main Menu screen options and describe features of each: Standard CMOS Setup, BIOS Feature Setup, Chipset Features Setup, Power Management Setup, PNP/PCI Configuration, Load Setup Defaults, Integrated Peripherals, Supervisor Password, User Password, IDE HDD Auto Detection, Save and Exit Setup, and Exit Without Saving.

39. What is the purpose of the BIOS Supervisor Password?

1. It does not allow the computer to boot unless the correct password is entered.
2. It sets the administrative password for Windows NT
3. It locks users out of the system BIOS setup screen.
4. Changes made in the BIOS can not be saved unless the correct password is entered.

Objective: 51.3 Cite 12 BIOS Main Menu screen options and describe features of each: Standard CMOS Setup, BIOS Feature Setup, Chipset Features Setup, Power Management Setup, PNP/PCI Configuration, Load Setup Defaults, Integrated Peripherals, Supervisor Password, User Password, IDE HDD Auto Detection, Save and Exit Setup, and Exit Without Saving.

40. What hard drive function in the BIOS is not utilized on IDE hard drives?

1. Standard CMOS Setup screen
2. IDE HDD Auto Detection
3. HDD Low Level Format
4. A and B
5. All of the above

Objective: 51.3 Cite 12 BIOS Main Menu screen options and describe features of each: Standard CMOS Setup, BIOS Feature Setup, Chipset Features Setup, Power Management Setup, PNP/PCI Configuration, Load Setup Defaults, Integrated Peripherals, Supervisor Password, User Password, IDE HDD Auto Detection, Save and Exit Setup, and Exit Without Saving.

41. Which of the following are basic tasks performed by the operating system?

1. Keeps track of files on the floppy and hard drives
2. Controls peripherals such as printers, modems, etc.
3. Converts digital data into analog signals for displaying images on a computer monitor
4. A & B Only
5. A & C Only

Objective: 52.1 List and define the following operating system components: user interface, kernel, and file management system. 52.2 Compare and contrast features of the following operating systems: UNIX, Linux, IBM OS/2, Microsoft DOS, Microsoft Windows 95/98, Microsoft Windows NT, and Apple Macintosh

42. What is a Command Prompt Interface?

1. A setting in the Windows 95/98 Control Panel that lets you change the colors and fonts of the interface.
2. An error message prompting a user command to remedy the problem
3. An interface that requires a user to interact with the system by typing commands at a prompt.
4. The area in Internet Explorer where a URL is entered.

Objective: 52.1 List and define the following operating system components: user interface, kernel, and file management system. 52.2 Compare and contrast features of the following operating systems: UNIX, Linux, IBM OS/2, Microsoft DOS, Microsoft Windows 95/98, Microsoft Windows NT, and Apple Macintosh

43. The beginning, or highest, directory in a file system's directory structure is the ______________.

1. Root Directory
2. Start Directory
3. Tree Directory
4. Head Directory

Objective: 52.1 List and define the following operating system components: user interface, kernel, and file management system. 52.2 Compare and contrast features of the following operating systems: UNIX, Linux, IBM OS/2, Microsoft DOS, Microsoft Windows 95/98, Microsoft Windows NT, and Apple Macintosh

44. Which Microsoft operating system is single tasking?

1. Windows 3.11
2. DOS
3. Windows NT
4. Windows 95

Objective: 52.2 Compare and contrast features of the following operating systems: UNIX, Linux, IBM OS/2, Microsoft DOS, Microsoft Windows 95/98, Microsoft Windows NT, and Apple Macintosh.

45. Windows 95 is a ______ operating system.

1. Hybrid 16/32-bit
2. 16-bit
3. 32-bit
4. 64-bit

Objective: 53.1 List features of Windows 2000, Windows 98 and Windows 95.

46. How much memory is required for Windows 98?

1. 16MB
2. 8MB
3. 24MB
4. 64MB
5. None of the above

Objective: 53.3 List hardware requirements for Windows 95, 98 and 2000.

47. Which of the following is a reason to perform a first-time installation of Windows 2000?

1. A user wishes to utilize two partitions and create a dual-boot configuration with Windows 2000 and current operating system.
2. A user desires Windows 2000's added speed and enhancements, but wishes to maintain existing Windows settings and preferences.
3. The computer has an older Windows version that supports upgrading.
4. A user wishes to replace a previous version of the Windows operating system with Windows 2000.

Objective: 53.2 Describe scenarios for Windows 2000 installation and upgrade.

48. Which operating system requires at least a Pentium 133MHz CPU?

1. DOS
2. Windows 3.11
3. Windows 2000
4. Windows 98

Objective: 53.3 List hardware requirements for Windows 95, 98 and 2000.

49. What Windows 98 file system is more efficient than previous Windows versions?

1. FAT32
2. HPFS
3. NTFS
4. FAT16

Objective: 53.1 List features of Windows 2000, Windows 98 and Windows 95.

50. If a monitor is running at a resolution of 640x480, how many pixels are being displayed?

1. 16,777,216
2. 1,222,000
3. 640,480
4. 307,200

Objective: 36.7 Define pixels and resolution.