Is it the homeowner's responsibility to cut the grass between the sidewalk and the curb?
Generally, yes.
Generally, yes.
Generally, yes.
Generally, yes.
Dr Patel may have an issue with the fact that property claim is nul in void. Otherwise, the property claim is of no use to the doctor and is considered to be a document of which is invalid.
Is a supermaket on public or private property?
A retail store is a public space but it's private property.
According to your question, your mother and your daughter owned property together. That deed should be recorded in the land records. If they owned as joint tenants with the right of survivorship, when your mother dies her interest in the property would pass automatically to your daughter and bypass probate.
If your mother signed a quitclaim deed that conveyed her interest to you, that deed must be recorded in the land records. By executing that deed, she broke the joint tenancy she had with your daughter and now you and your daughter own the property as tenants in common. Your mother no longer owns the property and it would not be included in her probate estate.
What does it mean to give someone nonexclusive rights?
Non-exclusive means that other persons may have or be may be given that same right or easement.
Can you sale your part of inherited undivided land in Texas if owned by myself and 3 sisters?
Yes. If you can find a buyer who is interested in owning a one-quarter interest in land with your three sisters you can execute a deed transferring your interest. You might try to sell your interest to your sisters.
Yes. If you can find a buyer who is interested in owning a one-quarter interest in land with your three sisters you can execute a deed transferring your interest. You might try to sell your interest to your sisters.
Yes. If you can find a buyer who is interested in owning a one-quarter interest in land with your three sisters you can execute a deed transferring your interest. You might try to sell your interest to your sisters.
Yes. If you can find a buyer who is interested in owning a one-quarter interest in land with your three sisters you can execute a deed transferring your interest. You might try to sell your interest to your sisters.
= Mork & Mindy =
Can surviving children leave the deed on a house in the parents name?
This will depend on the lender. Normally the estate can continue the mortgage for a reasonable period of time. It is up to the finance company to determine whether they trust the beneficiaries to continue the mortgage.
How do you get a lis pendens off your property in California- is there a statute of limitations?
A lis pendens is a notice that there is a pending court action that affects the property. A certificate from the court stating the outcome of the court action and recorded in the land records will dissolve the LP. The Chapter found in the link below does not mention a statute of limitations.
What does full and unrestrictive access mean?
That would be a right of access that cannot be restricted by any other party.
That would be a right of access that cannot be restricted by any other party.
That would be a right of access that cannot be restricted by any other party.
That would be a right of access that cannot be restricted by any other party.
You could divide the value of his financial interest into pieces and then give him up to $15,000 worth of ownership each year, falling under your annual gift tax exclusion each year, until he owns the desired percentage of the deed.
Can I transfer my house to a trust if I'm still paying it off?
You can convey your property to a trust but the property will still be subject to the mortgage. You must check with your bank before making that change in title. Most banks require an immediate payment of the mortgage when there is a change in ownership. The bank may require that you refinance in the name of the trust.
You need to review the instrument that created the Protective Covenants and restrictions. There is usually a provision that will address your question such as the following example: [Enforcement and Attorneys
Ingress and Egress written in a deed?
'Ingress' means to enter and 'egress' means to leave. The words indicate that the property is subject to a right-of-way, without the right-of-way being described in detail (i.e., by 'metes and bounds).
You need to consult with an attorney who can review your situation and determine your options under your state laws. The details sound as though you would prevail in an adverse possession claim but you may need a court order to perfect that claim and clear the title to your property.
Wife signed quite claim to house to husband but can husband leave house to wife?
Yes. The husband would be the sole owner of the property and could leave it to his wife in his will.
Can one sell the whole of the property on a 50-50 share without the other consent?
No. The first rule of conveyancing is that a grantor can only sell what they own. When there are multiple owners of property any one owner can only sell their proportionate interest in the property. Therefore, if there are two people who own a single property, one can only sell their one-half interest. It may be difficult to find a buyer if the property is a single family dwelling. The one half interest may be conveyed if the property is held as tenants in common or as joint tenants.
The situation becomes more complicated if the property is owned in a tenancy by the entirety, a special tenancy reserved for married people. In a T/E the "survivorship rights" of the other cannot be severed. In some states one tenant by the entirety cannot sell their interest in the property. In some states they can transfer their interest but the grantee acquires a tenuous title that depends on the life of the grantor.
For example, Norah and Ethan owned property as T/E in Massachusetts. Ethan decided to leave (there was no divorce) and transferred his interest in the property by deed to his brother Liam. In some states that deed would be void. In this case the title would play out as follows. If Norah died then Liam would become the sole owner of the property. If Ethan died then Norah would become the sole owner because her survivorship rights with Ethan could not be severed. Liam would be out of luck.
It depends upon what you mean by co-owners. If they own the property as "Tenants in Common," then they each own a particular percentage of the property which they can pass along at their death to whomever they wish. If they own the property as Tenants in Common, then yes the deceased brother's share will have to go through probate (unless there was a recorded beneficiary deed).
If they own the property as "Joint Tenants" or "Joint Tenants with Rights of Survivorship" then once the first brother dies the property automatically passes to the surviving brother by operation of law. No probate would be necessary in that scenario. The surviving brother would just have to file an Affidavit of Death in the county where the property is located as well as a certified copy of the death certificate.
You will know how they own the property based upon what the deed originally conveying the property says. If the deed is silent, state law assumes Tenants in Common.
What is the difference between lis alibi pendens and lis pendens?
"Alibi" means here foreign. So "lis alibi pendens" tells us that there is the same action in the foreign court, while "lis pendens" may stand for the same action in the national court.
Sisters name on deed of house but siblings want to sell house?
You can not force her to sell. You will have to buy her out then you can all sell it.
Another Perspective/AnswerWhen land is under co-ownership of two or more people who cannot agree on what to do with the land, any owner can file a Petition to Partition in the appropriate court.
The court has the power to divide the land if that is feasible such as when there are multiple tracts or a single large tract. If dividing the land is not feasible then the court can order a sale and the net proceeds are divided according to each owner's interest after the costs and expenses associated with the Partition have been deducted. You should consult with an attorney who specializes in real estate law.
Property owned as tenants-by-the-entirety cannot be partitioned.
Would acquiring the original deed be better than a quit claim deed?
No. In order to transfer title to real property to a new owner the new owner must get a deed from the present owner.The "original deed" was a transaction between the grantor and grantee on that deed.
No. In order to transfer title to real property to a new owner the new owner must get a deed from the present owner.The "original deed" was a transaction between the grantor and grantee on that deed.
No. In order to transfer title to real property to a new owner the new owner must get a deed from the present owner.The "original deed" was a transaction between the grantor and grantee on that deed.
No. In order to transfer title to real property to a new owner the new owner must get a deed from the present owner.The "original deed" was a transaction between the grantor and grantee on that deed.
Is it legal to sell landlocked property?
The answer depends on the details and the laws in your particular jurisdiction. Generally, if the owner owns a larger tract that abuts access they must provide access in most jurisdictions. If the parcel has been landlocked for a long period of time and the owner cannot provide access, a potential buyer may need to negotiate with abutters to purchase a right of way to the land. Also, a title examination may reveal an ancient right of way.
This is a complicated issue and you should consult with an attorney who specializes in real estate law before making any purchase of landlocked property.