Loans

If you are not on the deed then you don't own the property. If you don't own the property then you should not promise to pay the mortgage. A co-signer on a mortgage and promissory note is completely responsible for paying the mortgage. If the primary mortgagor (who in this case is the owner of the property) defaults on the mortgage the lender will go after the co-signer of the note for payment. A default will ruin your credit. If someone has asked you to sign their note and mortgage then you should require they execute a new deed with you as the co-owner of the property.

Singapore does not provide instant cash/immediate personal loans.

Someone can claim another person owes them money without a verbal agreement, but it would be very hard for them to prove it in a court or any other place. The person should learn from their unfortunate mistake and learn to write it down in front of witness' ( preferably someone that can notarize the paper), record the procedure with a camcorder or voice recorder, or even better- do not loan anyone money.

You are still expected to pay the loan or come up with the unit. If you sold it, and the title loan company sends out an order for repossession, whomever they repo it from is going to come after you for having their car taken from them. If its "gone" then they will file a writ of replevin and file a judgement against you. Either way, you signed a contract and you are expected to pay.

How to transfer my title from minnesota to california

You AND your husband are the owners of the house. Should you divorce, you have an equal investment in the house. The mortgage is in your husband's name, but should he die, you are responsible for this bill. If you default on the loan, you will foreclose on the house. The mortgage company does not care who pays the loan off, as long as it gets paid.

There is always the possibility that a person injured in a car accident will go after the other driver's property if the other driver is found to be at fault and doesn't have enough coverage. As an owner of the car and insurance coverage, your property may be reachable.

If homestead protection is available to homeowners in your state you should record a Declaration of Homestead in the land records immediately. A homestead exemption can protect your property from seizure by creditors. You should consult with an attorney ASAP who can review the situation and advise if you are exposed to liability since the car is registered and insured in your name. She/he could also advise you if you have protection under your state's homestead laws.

If you Quit claim it to her you loose all rights to the asset. If they Foreclose due to non payment she will loose the asset. If they sale it for less than the mortgage you both could be liable for the difference in a suit.

I like BIG BUTTS and i cannot lie

I don't know but I am in the same situation. I got a loan on my van and after my first payment the transmission quit 100 miles from home. I can not afford to get it fixed or get it towed back to my house my only option was to leave it. They don't know yet and my second payment is not due yet, should I not do anything just stop paying or should I call them and tell them what happened?

If you signed a contract in which you agreed to have your wages garnished should you not pay back the loan, then yes. There's more information at www.getecash.com

Under current bankruptcy law it is possible to eliminate or "strip" a 2nd trust deed (mortgage) through chapter 13 bankruptcy. A competent experienced bankruptcy attorney can accomplish this. There is a lot of misinformation propogated in this area often by persons attempting to take advantage of others. The basic requirement is that the value of the home is less than that owed by the first trust deed. The 2nd trust deed becomes an unsecured debt and no longer a lien on the home. When the chapter 13 is concluded any balance owed to unsecured creditors including the 2nd trust deed is discharged. Answer provided by a bankruptcy attorney with over 30 years of experience.

The Federal National Mortgage Association has discontinued its free market auction system for commitments to purchase conventional home mortgages. Therefore, the Commissioner of Financial Institutions hereby announces that the maximum effective rate of interest per annum for home loans as set by the General Assembly in 1987, Public Chapter 291, for the month of February, 2013 is 7.05 percent per annum.

The rate as set by the said law is an amount equal to four percentage points above the index of market yields of long-term government bonds adjusted to a thirty (30) year maturity by the U. S. Department of the Treasury. For the most recent weekly average statistical data available preceding the date of this announcement, the calculated rate is 3.05 percent.

Persons affected by the maximum effective rate of interest for home loans as set forth in this notice should consult legal counsel as to the effect of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-221 as amended by P.L. 96-399) and regulations pursuant to that Act promulgated by the Federal Home Loan Bank Board. State usury laws as they relate to certain loans made after March 31, 1980, may be preempted by this Act.

yes

Yes, there are no consumer laws such as the FDCPA that would prevent such action, as bankruptcy is a matter of public record, and some bankruptcy filings are published in newspapers. Since it is true it could not be construed as slander, libel, defamation and so forth. It is rude, unethical and completely without reason, but not illegal. No, I don't think you can be slandered, libeled, defamed for anyone publicising your actual and legal, TRUE and public record actions. The defense of it being real and actual....albeit a derogatory, covers most anything said about you (that truth was your choice...don't want to be called a bankrupt, don't be one). How rude, unethical, etc it is can also be disputed....the reason it is a matter of public record is because it is something that the public should know! (That your trustworthyness is to be questioned as you failed to maintain your sworn promises and pay debts, obligations, etc. I'd want tp know before having any dealings with you...don't want to end up like th last guys...and if you lied on the sworn agreement to pay them back...and likely more...for whatever the reason...I don't want to find you had a reason to lie to me too). The only real legal thing is if the letter itself was an attempt to collect the debt (which cannot be attempted during the BK, and probably won't exist after it) or just standard correspondence.

YA

Technically the wife and husband own the home while the husband is the only one who owes money to the lender. The property has been pledged to the lender to secure the loan. If the loan has a due on sale clause or other restrictions then there could be a situation where the lender will call the loan due. It is rare for a lender to make a loan to only 1 party who is on the deed. Normally what has happened is an individual took out a loan secured by a property when they were the sole owner. Later the other party, the spouse, was added to the property's title. Normally this is a technically violation of the Due On Sale (DOS) clause in the mortgage contract if you check the fine print. The transfer while valid has triggered a situation where the lender is free to call the loan due. In many cases a better solution that to put the wife on title when the husband already owns the property is to have the husband deed the property to a trust and then have the trust set up so the wife retains the ability to live in the property and to otherwise gain the same benefits as owning the property. The key with a trust is the DOS clause is not triggered when the trust is being used for estate planning. Providing for one's spouse after something happens is exactly what estate planning addresses. If the wife is on title and the husband is no longer alive, the wife may or may not be asked to pay off the loan. If that is the case she can refinance or use savings to pay off the loan. In many cases the lender will not take any action if the payments remain current. Insurance is one possible way to help the wife protect her interest if the husband was to die or otherwise not be able to work and she is on title. It may or may not be the right solution in any particular situation. Insurance can also be a good solution even if the property is in trust as it can provide a lump sum so the wife has fewer economic problems. Assuming the wife is being asked to pay off the loan and she lacks the means to either refinance or pay off the loan from savings then a sale of the property becomes the normal solution. Otherwise the lender can start a foreclosure action to force a sale at auction.

There are many reasons why you would sue your mortgage company. Each reason would be because the mortgage company wronged you in some way (for example, not putting enough of your monthly payment toward principal).

If you feel you have been wronged by your mortgage company, please contact your state attorney generals office.

If it has taken legal possession of the property the answer is yes. The mortgagor would have been given notice of the sale by certified mail and by a publishing in the local newspaper. Many homeowners who are facing a foreclosure are so distressed they fail to open correspondence from the lender. However, that correspondence contains important information the lender is required to provide to the mortgagor. It should all be reviewed for details. If on the other hand the homeowner was not provided with notice of the impending sale according to state laws then the foreclosure may be defective. You would need to seek the advice of an attorney to make that determination.

The mortgage obligation remains on the property. If the holder of the mortgage dies then her heirs own the mortgage.

Contact the lender that is holding the lien, and they will tell you how to proceed.

You can't. The lender wants what is owed on the car not what it is worth. This is being upside down on the loan.

Yes you can, if you have a current loan about let say 10,000 and your car is only worth 5000, the next bad credit loan provider will have to bury 5000 in negative equity. It is possible with a bad credit loan provider, it maybe at a higher interest but you don't have a choice at that moment. If you are located in Canada you can try this resource at http://www.autocreditfinancial.ca good luck.