Repossession

Technically, you would need to get title to it before you could sell it. If the bank will grant you "salvage" title, perhaps for a cut of the profits (or a dollar), you can fix it, sell it, and split the proceeds with the bank.

Ummm.. i think by that sentence alone it pretty much answers itself.. Yes, if you have a case against this car, report it.. and if it ohkay after that.. Buy it!

But im 99.99% positive it IS illegal.

In effect, the car isn't paid off. If you check your documentation, you will find that they can do that. If the cheque bounced, the payments haven't been made.

For unpaid taxes and unpaid student loans, yes.

In virtually every case pensions are not lost in a bankruptcy even if you go into a banrkruptcy with a pension or a 401K or an IRA. There was a US Supreme Court case from 1992 I believe (Patterson v. Shumate) that basically said that pensions funds are not part of the bankruptcy estate and therefore not subject to the trustee taking them to pay your debts.

The doctor may prescribe antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection. If the patient can breathe without a ventilator, the room is humidified

I believe you would have to go to your local DMV

I believe you may be referring to the use of the word "cure" as meaning a "remedy to." (i.e.- By doing 'thus-and-so" you can "cure" the situation.).

Thats a decision YOU have to make. Please consider the effects on your credit for each choice. Having to make that decision is a result of not considering it b4 you cosigned. Good Luck

IF you can find a BUYER, negotiate with the lender to complete the sale. The "no leinholder" part on the title wont fly if you try to do the sale. It IS recorded with the DMV.

I don't think that it is recorded at the DMV, the vehicle was paid for by check to the dealership through a credit union, it was not dealer financed. I will check with DMV though.

It depends of which B/K you file and whether you complete it.

Federal law prohibits employers from using bankruptcy as a reason for not hiring or discharging an employee. However, the law does not prevent an employer for using the person's questionable credit history as a reason for denying unemployment. Somewhat of a classic Catch-22.

Who owns the car, the co or the person?

you lost your husband and a car too!

They don't have to give you any notice. The divorce settlement should have included you being taken off the title with no financial responsibility whatsoever for the car.

They don't really need to. If a bank wants to reposses your car, they will hire a repo man to do it. Licensed repo's have master keys from the car manufacturers that can get them into most cars. Do you owe to a bank or to the dealership? The dealership has a key to your car. The bank can work with the dealership in a similar way. If you owe the bank and there either is no dealership involved or the dealership cannot provide a key, they still have options- they can tow the car, obtain a key from the manufacturer, have one made, etc. They normally already have this process taken care of before the loan is granted. Until the car is paid off, it belongs to the bank or dealership. If they are not being paid on a regular basis, they will take whatever measures legally possible to reposes their property. On a similar note, when they come out to repose the car, they have already called the local authorities. This allows them to take the car whenever and from where ever.

If you are filing for a divorce and you sell your house without the court's order, yes. There is an "Automatic Court Order" that is served with the divorce complaint that avoids parties from incurring expenses and/or spending money in joint accounts or selling property whether pesonal or real.

It can be garnished by the federal government. Federal student loans, IRS debt, ect. Also if you owe back child support or alimony payments, it can be garnished. However, it cannot be garnished by regular creditors.

Yes. The lien will be enforced when the home is sold.

when it is voluntary waiver of his right by buyer and acceptance of goods by buyer then breach of condition is to be treated as breach of warranty.sec.42 deals with acceptance of goods when he intimates to the seller regarding acceptance or retain the goods without rejectingthe goods.in these condition breach of condition is to be treated as breach of warranty.

This is a difficult question to answer since different debts are treated differently, and since circumstances can so drastically change the results. To begin with, please see 11 U.S.C. 523, which states: "(a) A discharge under section 727, 1141, 1228 (a), 1228 (b), or 1328 (b) of this title does not discharge an individual debtor from any debt- ... (C) [which are] consumer debts owed to a single creditor and aggregating more than $1,000 for "luxury goods or services" incurred by an individual debtor on or within 60 days before the order for relief under this title, or cash advances aggregating more than $1,000 that are extensions of consumer credit under an open end credit plan obtained by an individual debtor on or within 60 days before the order for relief under this title, are presumed to be nondischargeable; "luxury goods or services" do not include goods or services reasonably acquired for the support or maintenance of the debtor or a dependent of the debtor; an extension of consumer credit under an open end credit plan is to be defined for purposes of this subparagraph as it is defined in the Consumer Credit Protection Act...." So, credit cards and loans for luxury items incurred within 60 days before the petition is filed are presumed to be non-dischargeable. However, creditors can come after you for debts incurred virtually any amount of time before a bankruptcy is filed if they feel that they can prove to the Court that the debtor incurred the debts in anticipation of filing bankruptcy on those debts, or if the creditor can show that the debtor was insolvent at the time the debts were incurred and knew or should have known that he or she could not afford to repay them. Most debtors I see wait at least 60 days after any debt is incurred prior to filing a bankruptcy. What seldom ever works is when a debtor goes and runs up a bunch of credit cards or payday loans and then waits 60 days and files thinking they're beating the system: creditors aren't stupid, and if they see a spending "spike" prior to a bankruptcy filing (even outside of 60 days) they will sometimes object. Bankruptcy is only designed for honest, hardworking people who suffer financial hardship, so it is best to ensure that the debts on which one files bankruptcy are honest debts. Please note that nothing in this posting or in any other posting constitutes legal advice; this is simply my understanding of the facts, which I do not warrant, and I am not suggesting any course of action or inaction to any person.

YES, they can be taken BUT NOT kept. ALL PP belongs to the debtor and the DEBTOR will have to redeem it.

NO, that would violate your right to privacy.

Yes, The insurance of a vehicle has no bearing on where the car is purchase or register.

No, unless you have medical or eyesight problems, I believe that after the age of 80 a yearly application is needed from DVLA